NCLEX RN Cardiovascular Exam Questions With Answers Correctly Tested And Verified Succes A | Exams Nursing | Docsity (2024)

Download NCLEX RN Cardiovascular Exam Questions With Answers Correctly Tested And Verified Succes A and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity! 1 NCLEX RN Cardiovascular Exam Questions With Answers Correctly Tested And Verified Succes Assured 1. A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the procedure? 1. Glipizide 2. Metformin 3. Repaglinide 4. Regular insulin 2. A client who had cardiac surgery 24 hours ago has had a urine output averaging 20 mL/hour for 2 hours. The client received a single bolus of 500 mL of intravenous fluid. Urine output for the subsequent hour was 25 mL. Daily laboratory results indicate that the blood urea nitrogen level is 45 mg/dL (16 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is 2.2 mg/dL (194 mcmol/L). On the basis of these findings, the nurse would anticipate that the client is at risk for which problem? 1. Hypovolemia 2. Acute kidney injury 3. Glomerulonephritis 4. Urinary tract infection 3. The nurse is reviewing an electrocardiogram rhythm strip. The P waves and QRS complexes are regular. The PR interval is 0.16 seconds, and QRS complexes measure 0.06 seconds. The overall heart rate is 64 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Check vital signs. 2. Check laboratory test results. 3. Notify the health care provider. 4. Continue to monitor for any rhythm change. 4. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to sound its alarm. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Call a code. 2. Call the health care provider. 3. Check the client's status and lead placement. 4. Press the recorder button on the electrocardiogram console. 5. The nurse is evaluating a client's response to cardioversion. Which assessment would be the priority? 1. Blood pressure 2. Status of airway 3. Oxygen flow rate 4. Level of consciousness 6. The nurse is caring for a client who has just had implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. The nurse should assess which item based on priority? 1. Anxiety level of the client and family 2 2. Presence of a Medic-Alert card for the client to carry 3. Knowledge of restrictions on post-discharge physical activity 4. Activation status of the device, heart rate cutoff, and number of shocks it is 5 1. Hypotension 6 2. Flat neck veins 3. Complaints of nausea 4. Complaints of headache Rationale: The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate greater than 100 beats/minute is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins. 18. The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment component would elicit specific information regarding the client's left-sided heart function? 1. Listening to lung sounds 2. Palpating for organomegaly 3. Assessing for jugular vein distention 4. Assessing for peripheral and sacral edema 19. The nurse is participating in a class on rhythm strip interpretation. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of a PR interval of 0.20? 1. "This is a normal finding." 2. "This is indicative of atrial flutter." 3. "This is indicative of atrial fibrillation." 4. "This is indicative of impending reinfarction." 20. The nurse in the medical unit is assigned to provide discharge teaching to a client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris. The nurse is discussing lifestyle changes that are needed to minimize the effects of the disease process. The client continually changes the subject during the teaching session. The nurse interprets that this client's behavior is most likely related to which problem? 1. Anxiety related to the need to make lifestyle changes 2. Boredom resulting from having already learned the material 3. An attempt to ignore or deny the need to make lifestyle changes 4. Lack of understanding of the material provided at the teaching session and embarrassment about asking questions 21. A home care nurse is visiting a client to provide follow-up evaluation and care of a leg ulcer. On removing the dressing from the leg ulcer, the nurse notes that the ulcer is pale and deep and that the surrounding tissue is cool to the touch. The nurse should document that these findings identify which type of ulcer? 1. A stage 1 ulcer 2. A vascular ulcer 3. An arterial ulcer 4. A venous stasis ulcer Rationale: Arterial ulcers have a pale deep base and are surrounded by tissue that is cool with trophic changes such as dry skin and loss of hair. Arterial ulcers are caused by tissue ischemia from inadequate arterial supply of oxygen and nutrients. A stage 1 ulcer indicates a reddened area with an intact skin surface. A venous stasis ulcer (vascular) has a dark red base and is surrounded by brown skin with local edema. This type of ulcer is caused by the accumulation of waste products of metabolism that are not cleared, as a result of 7 venous congestion. 10 1. "I'm not supposed to eat cold cuts." 11 2. "I can have most fresh fruits and vegetables." 3. "I'm going to weigh myself daily to be sure I don't gain too much fluid." 4. "I'm going to have a ham and cheese sandwich and potato chips for lunch." 31. The nurse is performing a health screening on a 54-year-old client. The client has a blood pressure of 118/78 mm Hg, total cholesterol level of 190 mg/dL (4.9 mmol/L), and fasting blood glucose level of 184 mg/dL (10.2 mmol/L). The nurse interprets this to mean that the client has which modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease (CAD)? 1. Age 2. Hypertension 3. Hyperlipidemia 4. Glucose intolerance 32. The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge? 1. "I need to start exercising more to improve my health." 2. "I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist." 3. "I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home." 4. "I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for." 33. The home care nurse has taught a client with a problem of inadequate cardiac output about helpful lifestyle adaptations to promote health. Which statement by the client best demonstrates an understanding of the information provided? 1. "I will eat enough daily fiber to prevent straining at stool." 2. "I will try to exercise vigorously to strengthen my heart muscle." 3. "I will drink 3000 to 3500 mL of fluid daily to promote good kidney function." 4. "Drinking 2 to 3 oz of liquor each night will promote blood flow by enlarging blood vessels." Rationale: Standard home care instructions for a client with this problem include, among others, lifestyle changes such as decreased alcohol intake, avoiding activities that increase the demands on the heart, instituting a bowel regimen to prevent straining and constipation, and maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance. Consuming 3000 to 3500 mL of fluid and exercising vigorously will increase the cardiac workload. 12 34. A client has been experiencing difficulty with completion of daily activities because of underlying cardiovascular disease, as evidenced by exertional fatigue and increased blood pressure. Which observation by the nurse best indicates client progress in meeting goals for this problem? 1. Ambulates 10 feet (3 meters) farther each day 2. Verbalizes the benefits of increasing activity 3. Chooses a healthy diet that meets caloric needs 4. Sleeps without awakening throughout the night 35. The health care provider (HCP) has written a prescription for a client to have an echocardiogram. Which action should the nurse take to prepare the client for the procedure? 1. Questions the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish 2. Has the client sign an informed consent form for an invasive procedure 3. Tells the client that the procedure is painless and takes 30 to 60 minutes 4. Keeps the client on nothing by mouth (NPO) status for 2 hours before the procedure 36. A client with coronary artery disease is scheduled to have a diagnostic exercise stress test. Which instruction should the nurse plan to provide to the client about this procedure? 1. Eat breakfast just before the procedure. 2. Wear firm, rigid shoes, such as work boots. 3. Wear loose clothing with a shirt that buttons in front. 4. Avoid cigarettes for 30 minutes before the procedure. 37. A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization to diagnose the extent of coronary artery disease. The nurse places highest priority on telling the client to report which sensation during the procedure? 1. Chest pain 2. Urge to cough 3. Warm, flushed feeling 4. Pressure at the insertion site 38. A client recovering from pulmonary edema is preparing for discharge. What should the nurse plan to teach the client to do to manage or prevent recurrent symptoms after discharge? 1. Weigh self on a daily basis. 15 2. Strict bed rest for 24 hours after transfer 3. Bathroom privileges and self-care activities 4. Unsupervised hallway ambulation for distances up to 200 feet (60 meters) 47. A client with no history of heart disease has experienced acute myocardial infarction and has been given thrombolytic therapy with tissue plasminogen activator. What assessment finding should the nurse identify as an indicator that the client is experiencing complications of this therapy? 1. Tarry stools 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Orange-colored urine 4. Decreased urine output Rationale: Thrombolytic agents are used to dissolve existing thrombi, and the nurse should monitor the client for obvious or occult signs of bleeding. This includes assessment for obvious bleeding within the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, urinary system, and skin. It also includes Hema-test testing of secretions for occult blood. The correct option is the only one that indicates the presence of blood. 48. The nurse is discussing smoking cessation with a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statement should the nurse make to try to motivate the client to quit smoking? 1. "None of the cardiovascular effects are reversible, but quitting might prevent lung cancer." 2. "Because most of the damage has already been done, it will be all right to cut down a little at a time." 3. "If you totally quit smoking right now, you can cut your cardiovascular risk to zero within a year." 4. "If you quit now, your risk of cardiovascular disease will decrease to that of a nonsmoker in 3 to 4 years." 49. A client has experienced an episode of pulmonary edema. The nurse determines that the client's respiratory status is improving after this episode if which breath sounds are noted? 1. Rhonchi 2. Wheezes 3. Crackles in the bases 4. Crackles throughout the lung fields Rationale: Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink- tinged sputum. As the client's condition improves, the amount of fluid in the alveoli decreases, which may be detected by 16 crackles in the bases. (Clear lung sounds indicate full resolution of the episode.) Rhonchi and wheezes are not associated with pulmonary edema. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles throughout the lung fields. 50. A hospitalized client has been diagnosed with heart failure as a complication of hypertension. In explaining the disease process to the client, the nurse identifies which chamber of the heart as primarily responsible for the symptoms? 1. Left atrium 2. Right atrium 3. Left ventricle 4. Right ventricle Rationale: Hypertension increases the workload of the left ventricle because the ventricle has to pump the stroke volume against increased resistance (afterload) in the major blood vessels. Over time this causes the left ventricle to fail, leading to signs and symptoms of heart failure. The remaining options are not the chambers that are primarily responsible for this disease process, although these chambers may be affected as the disease becomes more chronic. 51. The nurse has just completed education on myocardial infarction (MI) to a group of new nurses. Which statement made by one of the nurses indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the myocardium." 2. "Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the vessels of the heart." 3. "Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the parietal pericardium." 4. "Chest pain is caused by tissue hypoxia in the visceral pericardium." 52. The registered nurse (RN) is educating a new nurse on mitral stenosis. Which statement by the new nurse indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "Left ventricle to aorta narrowing will impede flow of blood." 2. "Left atrium to left ventricle narrowing will impede flow of blood." 3. "Right atrium to right ventricle narrowing will impede flow of blood." 4. "Right ventricle to pulmonary artery narrowing will impede flow of blood." Rationale: The mitral valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle. 53. The registered nurse (RN) is educating a new nurse about aortic regurgitation. Which statement by the new nurse indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "Failure of the aortic valve to close completely allows blood to flow retrograde through the aorta to the left ventricle." 17 2. "Failure of the aortic valve to close completely allows blood to flow retrograde 20 61. A nursing student who is researching a medication at the nurses' station asks the registered nurse (RN) what the function of an alpha-adrenergic receptor is, and where the receptors are primarily found. The RN educates the nursing student. Which statement by the nursing student indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "The peripheral arteries and veins; when stimulated they cause vasoconstriction." 2. "Arterial and bronchial walls; when stimulated they cause vasodilation and bronchodilation." 3. "The heart; when stimulated it causes an increase in heart rate, atrioventricular node conduction, and contractility." 4. "Several tissues; when stimulated they cause contraction of smooth muscle, inhibition of lipolysis, and promotion of platelet aggregation." 62. The nurse who is auscultating a 56-year-old client's apical heart rate before administering digoxin notes that the heart rate is 52 beats/min. The nurse should make which interpretation of this information? 1. Normal, because of the client's age 2. Abnormal, requiring further assessment 3. Normal, as a result of the effects of digoxin 4. Normal, because this is the reason the client is receiving digoxin 63. The client who is beginning an exercise program asks the nurse why his heart "feels like it's pounding" when he is exercising vigorously. The nurse provides education to the client about increased cardiac response based on which physiological concept? 1. Pulse rate is not a reflection of cardiac response. 2. Cardiac index is the mechanism that allows blood to flow better. 3. Cardiac output is the body's attempt to meet metabolic demands. 4. Stroke volume is an artificial number used to determine the adequacy of cardiac output. 64. The nurse is listening to a cardiologist explain the results of a cardiac catheterization to a client and family. The health care provider (HCP) tells the client that a blockage is present in the large blood vessel that supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. The nurse determines that the blockage is located in which area? 1. Circumflex coronary artery 2. Right coronary artery (RCA) 3. Posterior descending coronary artery (PDA) 4. Left anterior descending coronary artery (LAD) 21 Rationale: The LAD bifurcates from the left main coronary artery to supply the anterior wall of the left ventricle and a few other 22 structures. The circumflex coronary artery bifurcates from the left coronary artery and supplies the left atrium and the lateral wall of the left ventricle. The RCA supplies the right side of the heart, including the right atrium and right ventricle. The PDA supplies the posterior wall of the heart. 65. A new registered nurse (RN) is assigned to the care of a client hospitalized with a diagnosis of hypothermia. After consulting with an experienced RN, which statement by the new RN indicates understanding of likely assessment findings for this client? 1. Increased heart rate and increased blood pressure 2. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure 3. Decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure 4. Decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure Rationale: Hypothermia decreases the heart rate and the blood pressure because the metabolic needs of the body are reduced in this condition. With fewer metabolic needs, the workload of the heart decreases, resulting in decreased heart rate and blood pressure. 66. A client who has had a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why she should not bear down or strain to ensure having a bowel movement. The nurse provides education to the client based on which physiological concept? 1. Vagus nerve stimulation causes a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility. 2. Vagus nerve stimulation causes an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility. 3. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility. 4. Sympathetic nerve stimulation causes an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility. 67. A client with iron deficiency anemia complains of feeling fatigued almost all of the time. The nurse should respond with which statement? 1. "The work of breathing is increased when the client is anemic." 2. "Blood flows more slowly when the hemoglobin or hematocrit is low." 3. "The body has to work harder to fight infection in the presence of anemia." 4. "Adequate amounts of hemoglobin are needed to carry oxygen for tissue metabolism." 68. Which laboratory test results may be associated with peaked or tall, tented T waves on a client's electrocardiogram (ECG)? 1. Chloride level of 98 mEq/L (98 mmol/L) 25 76. A client with myocardial infarction is experiencing new, multiform premature ventricular contractions and short runs of ventricular tachycardia. The nurse plans to have which medication available for immediate use to treat the ventricular tachycardia? 1. Digoxin 2. Verapamil 3. Acebutolol 4. Amiodarone 77. A client has received antidysrhythmic therapy for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). The nurse evaluates this therapy as most effective if which finding is noted with regard to the PVCs? 1. They occur in pairs. 2. They appear to be multifocal. 3. They fall on the second half of the T wave. 4. They decrease to a frequency of less than 6 per minute. 78. The nurse is assessing the client's condition after cardioversion. Which observation should be of highest priority to the nurse? 1. Heart rate 2. Skin color 3. Status of airway 4. Peripheral pulse strength 79. The home health nurse makes a home visit to a client who has an implanted cardioverter- defibrillator (ICD) and reviews the instructions concerning pacemakers and dysrhythmias with the client. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is necessary? 1. "If I feel an internal defibrillator shock, I should sit down." 2. "I won't be able to have a magnetic resonance imaging test (MRI)." 3. "My wife knows how to call the emergency medical services (EMS) if I need it." 4. "I can stop taking my antidysrhythmic medicine now because I have a pacemaker." 26 80. A client with a complete heart block has had a permanent demand ventricular pacemaker inserted. The nurse assesses for proper pacemaker function by examining the electrocardiogram (ECG) strip for the presence of pacemaker spikes at what point? 1. Before each P wave 2. Just after each P wave 3. Just after each T wave 4. Before each QRS complex 81. A client complains of calf tenderness, and thrombophlebitis is suspected. The nurse should next assess the client for which finding? 1. Bilateral edema 2. Increased calf circumference 3. Diminished distal peripheral pulses 4. Coolness and pallor of the affected limb Rationale: The client with thrombophlebitis, also known as deep vein thrombosis, exhibits redness or warmth of the affected leg, tenderness at the site, possibly dilated veins (if superficial), low-grade fever, edema distal to the obstruction, and increased calf circumference in the affected extremity. Peripheral pulses are unchanged from baseline because this is a venous, not an arterial, problem. Often thrombophlebitis develops silently; that is, the client does not present with any signs and symptoms unless pulmonary embolism occurs as a complication. 82. The nurse is planning care for a client with deep vein thrombosis of the right leg. Which interventions would the nurse plan, based on the health care provider's (HCP's) prescriptions? Select all that apply. 1. Elevation of the right leg 2. Administration of acetaminophen 3. Application of moist heat to the right leg 4. Monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism 5. Ambulation in around the nursing unit every hour Rationale: Standard management of the client with deep vein thrombosis includes possible bed rest for 5 to 7 days or as prescribed; limb elevation; relief of discomfort with warm, moist heat and analgesics as needed; anticoagulant therapy; and monitoring for signs of pulmonary embolism. Although the health care provider may allow ambulation, hourly ambulation around the nursing unit is not encouraged because it increases the likelihood of dislodgement of the tail of the thrombus, which could travel to the lungs as a pulmonary embolism. 27 83. A client has been diagnosed with thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease). The nurse is identifying measures to help the client cope with lifestyle changes needed to control the disease process. The nurse plans to refer the client to which member of the health care team? 1. Dietitian 2. Medical social worker 3. Pain management clinic 4. Smoking cessation program Rationale: Buerger's disease is a vascular occlusive disease that affects the medium and small arteries and veins. Smoking is highly detrimental to the client with Buerger's disease, so stopping smoking completely is recommended. Because smoking is a form of chemical dependency, referral to a smoking cessation program may be helpful for many clients. For many clients with Buerger's disease, symptoms are relieved or alleviated once smoking stops. A dietitian, a medical social worker, and a pain management clinic are not specifically associated with the lifestyle changes required in this disorder, although they may be needed if secondary problems arise. 84. The home health nurse is visiting a client who has had a mechanical valve replacement for severe mitral valve stenosis. Which statement by the client reflects an understanding of specific postoperative care after this surgery? 1. "I need to count my pulse every day." 2. "I have to do deep-breathing exercises every 2 hours." 3. "I need to throw away my straight razor and buy an electric razor." 4. "I have to go to the bathroom frequently because of my medication." Rationale: Mechanical valves require long-term anticoagulation to prevent clots from forming on the "foreign" object implanted in the client's body. Anticoagulation therapy requires clients to avoid any trauma or potential means of causing bleeding, such as the use of straight razors. 85. The nurse is planning to teach a client with peripheral arterial disease about measures to limit disease progression. Which items should the nurse include on a list of suggestions for the client? Select all that apply. 1. Soak the feet in hot water daily. 2. Be careful not to injure the legs or feet. 3. Use a heating pad on the legs to aid vasodilation. 4. Walk each day to increase circulation to the legs. 5. Cut down on the amount of fats consumed in the diet. 86. The home health nurse visits a client recovering after an episode of cardiogenic shock secondary to an anterior myocardial infarction (MI) and provides home care instructions to the client. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of these home care measures? 30 90. A client is attached to a cardiac monitor, and the nurse notes the presence of this cardiac rhythm on the monitor. The nurse quickly assesses the client, knowing that this rhythm is indicative of which rhythm? Refer to Figure. View Figure 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) 3. Ventricular tachycardia (VT) 4. Premature ventricular complexes 91. The nurse is assessing a client's legs for the presence of edema. The nurse notes that the client has mild pitting with slight indentation and no perceptible swelling of the leg. How should the nurse define and document this finding? 1. 1+ edema 2. 2+ edema 3. 3+ edema 4. 4+ edema 92. The post–myocardial infarction client is scheduled for a technetium-99m ventriculography (multigated acquisition [MUGA] scan). The nurse ensures that which item is in place before the procedure? 1. A urinary catheter 2. Signed informed consent 3. A central venous pressure (CVP) line 4. Notation of allergies to iodine or shellfish 93. The nurse is teaching a client with cardiomyopathy about home care safety measures. The nurse should address with the client which most important measure to ensure client safety? 1. Assessing pain 2. Administering vasodilators 3. Avoiding over-the-counter (OTC) medications 4. Moving slowly from a sitting to a standing position 31 94. A client with an acute respiratory infection is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of sinus tachycardia. Which nursing action should be included in the client's plan of care? 1. Limiting oral and intravenous fluids 2. Measuring the client's pulse each shift 3. Providing the client with short, frequent walks 4. Eliminating sources of caffeine from meal trays 95. A client is scheduled for elective cardioversion to treat chronic high-rate atrial fibrillation. Which finding indicates that further preparation is needed for the procedure? 1. The client's digoxin has been withheld for the last 48 hours. 2. The client is wearing a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. 3. The defibrillator has the synchronizer turned on and is set at 120 joules (J). 4. The client has received an intravenous dose of a conscious sedation medication. Rationale: During the procedure, any oxygen is removed temporarily because oxygen supports combustion, and a fire could result from electrical arcing. Digoxin may be withheld for up to 48 hours before cardioversion because it increases ventricular irritability and may cause ventricular dysrhythmias after the countershock. The defibrillator is switched to synchronizer mode to time the delivery of the electrical impulse to coincide with the QRS and avoid the T wave, which could cause ventricular fibrillation. Energy level typically is set at 120 to 200 J for a biphasic machine. The client typically receives a dose of an intravenous sedative or antianxiety agent. 96. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client scheduled for cardioversion. The nurse plans to set the defibrillator to which starting energy range level, depending on the specific health care provider (HCP) prescription? 1. 120 joules 2. 200 joules 3. 250 joules 4. 350 joules 97. A client has developed uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/min. What manifestation should the nurse observe for when performing the client's focused assessment? 1. Flat neck veins 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Hypotension and dizziness 32 4. Clubbed fingertips and headache 35 101. Cardiac monitoring leads are placed on a client who is at risk for premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). Which heart rhythm will the nurse anticipate in this client if PVCs are occurring? 1. A P wave preceding every QRS complex 2. QRS complexes that are short and narrow 3. Inverted P waves before the QRS complexes 4. Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause 102. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client recovering from pulmonary edema. The nurse establishes a goal to have the client participate in activities that reduce cardiac workload. The nurse should identify which client action as contributing to this goal? 1. Using a bedside commode 2. Sleeping in the supine position 3. Elevating the legs when in bed 4. Using seasonings to improve the taste of food Rationale: Using a bedside commode decreases the work of getting to the bathroom or struggling to use the bedpan. The supine position increases respiratory effort and decreases oxygenation. Elevating the client's legs increases venous return to the heart thus increasing cardiac workload. Seasonings may be high in sodium and promote further fluid retention. 103. The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. How should the nurse assess for this disease? 1. Checking for a rash on the digits 2. Observing for softening of the nails or nail beds 3. Palpating for a rapid or irregular peripheral pulse 4. Palpating for diminished or absent peripheral pulses 104. The health care provider (HCP) prescribes limited activity (bed rest and bathroom only) for a client who developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after surgery. What interventions should the nurse plan to include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Encourage coughing with deep breathing. 2. Place in high Fowler's position for eating. 3. Encourage increased oral intake of water daily. 4. Place thigh-length elastic stockings on the client. 36 5. Place sequential compression boots on the client. 37 6. Encourage the intake of dark green, leafy vegetables. Rationale: The client with DVT may require bed rest to prevent embolization of the thrombus resulting from skeletal muscle action, anticoagulation to prevent thrombus extension and allow for thrombus autodigestion, fluids for hemodilution and to decrease blood viscosity, and elastic stockings to reduce peripheral edema and promote venous return. While the client is on bed rest, the nurse prevents complications of immobility by encouraging coughing and deep breathing. Venous return is important to maintain because it is a contributing factor in DVT, so the nurse maintains venous return from the lower extremities by avoiding hip flexion, which occurs with high Fowler's position. The nurse avoids providing foods rich in vitamin K, such as dark green, leafy vegetables, because this vitamin can interfere with anticoagulation, thereby increasing the risk of additional thrombi and emboli. The nurse also would not include use of sequential compression boots for an existing thrombus. They are used only to prevent DVT, because they mimic skeletal muscle action and can disrupt an existing thrombus, leading to pulmonary embolism. 105. Spironolactone is prescribed for a client with heart failure. In providing dietary instructions to the client, the nurse identifies the need to avoid foods that are high in which electrolyte? 1. Calcium 2. Potassium 3. Magnesium 4. Phosphorus 106. A client is seen in the emergency department for complaints of chest pain that began 3 hours ago. The nurse should suspect myocardial injury or infarction if which laboratory value comes back elevated? 1. Myoglobin 2. Troponin 3. C-reactive protein 4. Creatine kinase (CK) 107. The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client who has just undergone vein ligation and stripping. The nurse evaluates that the client understands activity and positioning limitations if the client states that which action is appropriate to do? 1. Walk for as long as possible each day. 2. Cross the legs at the ankle only, not at the knee. 3. Sit in a chair 3 times a day for 3 hours at a time. 4. Lie down with the legs elevated and avoid sitting. 40 1. Sodium level 2. Digoxin level 3. Creatinine level 4. Potassium level 113. A client is at risk for vasovagal attacks that cause brady dysrhythmias. The nurse would tell the client to avoid which actions to prevent this occurrence? Select all that apply. 1. Applying pressure on the eyes 2. Raising the arms above the head 3. Taking stool softeners on a daily basis 4. Bearing down during a bowel movement 5. Simulating a gag reflex when brushing the teeth 114. The nurse employed in a cardiac unit determines that which client is the least likely to have an implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) inserted? 1. A client with syncopal episodes related to ventricular tachycardia 2. A client with ventricular dysrhythmias despite medication therapy 3. A client with an episode of cardiac arrest related to myocardial infarction 4. A client with 3 episodes of cardiac arrest unrelated to myocardial infarction 115. The nurse is caring for a client immediately after insertion of a permanent demand pacemaker via the right subclavian vein. Which activity will assist with preventing dislodgement of the pacing catheter? 1. Limiting both movement and abduction of the left arm 2. Limiting both movement and abduction of the right arm 3. Assisting the client to get out of bed and ambulate with a walker 4. Having the physical therapist do active range-of-motion exercises to the right arm 116. A client seeks treatment in a health care provider's office for unsightly varicose veins, and radiofrequency ablation (RFA) is recommended. Before leaving the examining room, the client says to the nurse, "Can you tell me again how this is done?" Which statement should the nurse make? 1. "The varicosity is surgically removed." 2. "A heating element is used to occlude the vein." 41 3. "The vein is tied off at the upper end to prevent stasis from occurring." 4. "The vein is tied off at the lower end to prevent stasis from occurring." 117. A client is having a follow-up health care provider (HCP) office visit after vein ligation and stripping. The client describes a sensation of "pins and needles" in the affected leg. Which would be an appropriate action by the nurse based on evaluation of the client's comment? 1. Report the complaint to the HCP. 2. Instruct the client to apply warm packs. 3. Reassure the client that this is only temporary. 4. Advise the client to take acetaminophen until it is gone. 118. A client is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization using an iodineagent. Which assessment is mostcritical before the procedure? 1. Intake and output 2. Height and weight 3. Baseline peripheral pulse rates 4. Previous allergy to contrast agents 119. The nurse is assessing a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which assessment finding by the nurse is unrelated to the aneurysm? 1. Pulsatile abdominal mass 2. Hyperactive bowel sounds in the area 3. Systolic bruit over the area of the mass 4. Subjective sensation of "heart beating" in the abdomen 120. The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who had a percutaneous insertion of an inferior vena cava filter and was on heparin therapy before surgery. The nurse should be most concerned about monitoring for which potential complications? 1. Bleeding and infection 2. Thrombosis and infection 3. Bleeding and wound dehiscence 4. Wound dehiscence and evisceration 42 121. The nurse is listening to a lecture on Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS). The instructor is discussing electrocardiographic (ECG) changes caused by myocardial ischemia. Which statement by the nurse indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "Tall, peaked T waves can indicate ischemia." 2. "Prolonged PR interval can indicate ischemia." 3. "Widened QRS complex can indicate ischemia." 4. "ST segment elevation or depression can indicate ischemia." Rationale: An ECG taken during a chest pain episode captures ischemic changes, which include ST segment elevation or depression. Tall, peaked T waves may indicate hyperkalemia. A prolonged PR interval indicates first- degree heart block. A widened QRS complex indicates delay in intraventricular conduction, such as a bundle branch block. 122. The nurse is preparing to ambulate a client on the third day after cardiac surgery. What should the nurse plan to do to enable the client to best tolerate the ambulation? 1. Remove telemetry equipment. 2. Provide the client with a walker. 3. Premedicate the client with an analgesic. 4. Encourage the client to cough and breathe deeply. 123. A client with rapid-rate atrial fibrillation asks the nurse why the health care provider (HCP) is going to perform carotid sinus massage. The nurse educates the client about the treatment. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "The vagus nerve slows the heart rate." 2. "The diaphragmatic nerve slows the heart rate." 3. "The diaphragmatic nerve overdrives the rhythm." 4. "The vagus nerve increases the heart rate, overdriving the rhythm." 124. The nurse assesses the sternotomy incision of a client on the third day after cardiac surgery. The incision shows some slight puffiness along the edges and is non-reddened, with no apparent drainage. The client's temperature is 99°F (37.2°C) orally. The white blood cell count is 7500 mm3 (7.5 × 109/L). How should the nurse interpret these findings? 1. Incision is slightly edematous but shows no active signs of infection. 2. Incision shows early signs of infection, although the temperature is nearly normal. 45 132. A chaotic small, irregular, disorganized cardiac pattern suddenly appears on a client's cardiac monitor. Which is the nurse's first action? 1. Check the blood pressure. 2. Call the health care provider (HCP). 3. Check the client and the chest leads. 4. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). 133. Which is the priority assessment in the care of a client who is newly admitted to the hospital for acute arterial insufficiency of the left leg and moderate chronic arterial insufficiency of the right leg? 1. Monitor oxygen saturation with pulse oximetry. 2. Assess activity tolerance before and after exercise. 3. Observe the client's cardiac rhythm with telemetry. 4. Assess peripheral pulses with an ultrasonic Doppler device. 134. A client's electrocardiogram shows that the ventricular rhythm is irregular and there are no discernible P waves. The nurse recognizes that this pattern is associated with which condition? 1. Atrial flutter 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block 4. First-degree AV block 135. The nurse is caring for a client after an above-the-knee amputation. The nurse assesses the residual (remaining) limb and expects to note which finding? 1. Pink color to the skin flap 2. Hot feeling on palpation of the skin flap 3. Serous fluid leaking from the skin flap incision 4. Absent pulse at the proximal pulse point site closest to the skin flap 136. An emergency room nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment on a client. During auscultation of the heart sounds, the nurse hears these abnormal sounds. The nurse suspects that the client has which condition? Stop Sound 46 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Ventricular hypertrophy 4. Left bundle branch block 137. The nurse is caring for a postoperative client who has lost a significant amount of blood because of complications during a surgical procedure. Which assessment finding would be indicative of further fluid volume deficit? 1. 4+ edema noted in lower extremities 2. Crackles auscultated from lung bases to apices 3. Blood pressure rises from 116/68 to 118/74 mm Hg 4. Pulse rate increases from 100 beats/min to 136 beats/min 138. The nurse reading the operative record of a client who had cardiac surgery notes that the client's cardiac output immediately after surgery was 3.2 L/min. Evaluation of the cardiac output results leads the nurse to make which conclusion? 1. The cardiac output is above the normal range. 2. The cardiac output is below the normal range. 3. The cardiac output is in the low-normal range. 4. The cardiac output is in the high-normal range. Rationale: The normal cardiac output for the adult can range from 4 to 7 L/min. Therefore, a cardiac output of 3.2 L/min is below normal range. 139. The nurse is auscultating a 56-year-old adult client's apical heart rate before giving digoxin and notes that the heart rate is 48 beats/minute. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Withhold the digoxin and re-evaluate the heart rate in 4 hours. 2. Administer half of the prescribed dose to avoid a further decrease in heart rate. 3. Withhold the digoxin and assess for signs of decreased cardiac output and digoxin toxicity. 4. Administer the digoxin; the heart rate would be considered normal because of the client's age. 140. A new registered nurse (RN) is assisting the RN in admitting a client who has a diagnosis of hypothermia. The RN provides education to the new RN on anticipated vital signs in the client with hypothermia. Which statement by the new RN indicates that the teaching has been effective? 47 1. "The client will likely exhibit increased heart rate and increased blood pressure." 2. "The client will likely exhibit increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure." 3. "The client will likely exhibit decreased heart rate and increased blood pressure." 4. "The client will likely exhibit decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure." 141. A client has been admitted with left-sided heart failure. When planning care for the client, interventions should be focused on reduction of which specific problem associated with this type of heart failure? 1. Ascites 2. Pedal edema 3. Bilateral lung crackles 4. Jugular vein distention 142. The nurse is educating the client about variant angina. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective? 1. "Variant angina is induced by exercise." 2. "Variant angina occurs at the same time each day." 3. "Variant angina occurs at lower levels of activity." 4. "Variant angina is less predictable and a precursor of myocardial infarction." Rationale: Variant angina, or Prinz metal's angina, is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, usually in the morning. Stable angina is induced by exercise and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin tablets. Unstable angina occurs at lower levels of activity than those that previously precipitated the angina. Unstable angina also occurs at rest, is less predictable, and is often a precursor of myocardial infarction. 143. A client's total cholesterol level is 344 mg/dL (8.6 mmol/L), low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C) level is 164 mg/dL (4.25 mmol/L), and high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL- C) level is 30 mg/dL (1.2 mmol/L). Based on analysis of the data, how should the nurse direct client teaching? 1. The client should maintain the current dietary regimen but increase activity level. 2. Results are inconclusive unless the triglyceride level is also screened, so teaching is not indicated at this time. 3. The client is at high risk for cardiovascular disease, and measures to modify all identified risk factors should be taught.